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How much of your theology is based on one Bible translation?

 
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Post How much of your theology is based on one Bible translation? roughridercog
For example, if a certain part of your beliefs can only be backed up using KJV only, how sound is it? If a different translation contradicts it, do you challenge what you believe or the translation?

Just thinking this would make interesting discussion.
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12/11/19 7:52 pm


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Post Cojak
Most of it, because all my early days (formative years as they say)were KJV. That was many hours a week. I am always hoping the Lord understands... Shocked Embarassed
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12/11/19 8:38 pm


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Post Dave Dorsey
Every minister should have summary knowledge of textual criticism so that he or she can understand the differences in translations, understand the nature of the text and its transcription, and defend the authenticity and authority of the Scriptures.

There is a university-level course on this topic available completely for free at BiblicalTraining.org. It is taught by Dr. Daniel Wallace, who is one of the leading evangelical experts on the text in the entire world.

https://www.biblicaltraining.org/textual-criticism/daniel-wallace
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12/11/19 8:43 pm


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Post revuriah
Dave Dorsey wrote:
Every minister should have summary knowledge of textual criticism so that he or she can understand the differences in translations, understand the nature of the text and its transcription, and defend the authenticity and authority of the Scriptures.

There is a university-level course on this topic available completely for free at BiblicalTraining.org. It is taught by Dr. Daniel Wallace, who is one of the leading evangelical experts on the text in the entire world.

https://www.biblicaltraining.org/textual-criticism/daniel-wallace


I have gone through some of their courses in the past. I should get back to it.
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12/11/19 8:48 pm


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Post Dave Dorsey
revuriah wrote:
I have gone through some of their courses in the past. I should get back to it.

Same here! This thread made me think of Wallace's course, and I realized it's been awhile since I worked through anything from that site. It is amazing what they have made available for free. Bill Mounce is the man.
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12/11/19 8:59 pm


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Post Please state a theological position that is found in KJV, but nowhere else. Aaron Scott
Our theology will NOT change based on any respected translation. Hon. Dr. in Acts-celeratology
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12/12/19 10:49 am


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Post Don't have time to research this at this time roughridercog
But one example comes to mind. In the KJV, there is the mention of "unknown" tongues. It is inserted at the time for textual clarity. Other translations merely call it tongues or languages. Are they known or unknown?

For clarification and to dispel all doubt. I'm still Pentecostal through and through and believe and practice glossalia. I'm just fostering discussion here. Laughing
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Post Re: Please state a theological position that is found in KJV, but nowhere else. Dave Dorsey
Aaron Scott wrote:
Please state a theological position that is found in KJV, but nowhere else.

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12/12/19 11:10 am


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Post Re: Please state a theological position that is found in KJV, but nowhere else. Da Sheik
Dave Dorsey wrote:
Aaron Scott wrote:
Please state a theological position that is found in KJV, but nowhere else.

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Well, I've been told it is the "Authorized" version. Wink
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12/12/19 12:01 pm


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Post Dave Dorsey
Aaron's right, though. There are a handful of passages in the KJV that are almost certainly inauthentic (WAY fewer than are present in any other ancient text) -- including some significant ones like the long ending to Mark, the Pericope Adulterae (John 7:53-8:11), John 5:3-4, etc. However, NONE of these come close to touching any core Christian doctrine.

The most significant -- the Comma Johanneum, 1 John 5:7b-8a -- is the most direct reference to the Trinity in the Bible and was likely added in or around the 9th century. One would think, then, a-ha! Here is a doctrinally significant variant. Until you realize that the doctrine of the Trinity was established unequivocally, almost certainly without the benefit of this verse, 500+ years before this alteration made its way into the text. (The Comma Johanneum is not present in most modern translations.)

We affirm the Bible is verbally inspired in every word (plenary) at the time of writing. The process of transcription is a human effort, and yet it is still a marvel how God has watched over His word. With the discovery of the Alexandrian transcripts that formed the basis of the Nestle-Aland and provided the basis for so many modern translation, we have good reason to believe the translations we have today (which differ mainly in style and approach rather than content) are exceedingly close to the original autographs, a statement that is inconceivable for any other ancient text.

Still - there are 8,000+ some-odd variants between the manuscripts that we have, and that can be a problem both for unbelievers and wavering believers. It is so important that ministers understand the transcription of the text and the nature of these variants, and how they impact the text we have today so that they are prepared to give a defense of the Scriptures that are the basis of their hope. I cannot recommend the course by Dr. Daniel Wallace strongly enough.
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12/12/19 1:44 pm


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Post Roughrider... Aaron Scott
roughridercog wrote:
But one example comes to mind. In the KJV, there is the mention of "unknown" tongues. It is inserted at the time for textual clarity. Other translations merely call it tongues or languages. Are they known or unknown?

For clarification and to dispel all doubt. I'm still Pentecostal through and through and believe and practice glossalia. I'm just fostering discussion here. Laughing


We know from Acts 2 that the folks speaking in tongues (at least some of them) were speaking in known languages.

But in Corinthians, Paul speaks of "tongues of men and of angels." I don't know if he was making some point there or not, but it seems reasonable to think that there are languages unknown on earth.

If we pray in tongues but do not know the language (unless we interpret), then it would seem to suggest that not all tongues are for human consumption.
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12/13/19 3:57 pm


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Post Re: Roughrider... Cojak
Aaron Scott wrote:
roughridercog wrote:
But one example comes to mind. In the KJV, there is the mention of "unknown" tongues. It is inserted at the time for textual clarity. Other translations merely call it tongues or languages. Are they known or unknown?

For clarification and to dispel all doubt. I'm still Pentecostal through and through and believe and practice glossalia. I'm just fostering discussion here. Laughing


We know from Acts 2 that the folks speaking in tongues (at least some of them) were speaking in known languages.

But in Corinthians, Paul speaks of "tongues of men and of angels." I don't know if he was making some point there or not, but it seems reasonable to think that there are languages unknown on earth.

If we pray in tongues but do not know the language (unless we interpret), then it would seem to suggest that not all tongues are for human consumption.


Very good comment and also a good question. 'Unknown tongue' has always raised a ? in my mind. Me, hearing 'tongues' all my life. Embarassed
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12/13/19 11:34 pm


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Post Of course some people get their theology... roughridercog
From just one study Bible. Can't separate the notes from the Scripture. In their mind, they are one and the same. Laughing
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