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Do all speak with tongues ?
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Post Re: If you approach a teaching with a preconceived bias Cojak
Da Sheik wrote:
brotherjames wrote:
It will be unlikely for you to dispel your bias as you read the proof texts through your filter. Seeing the scriptures that indicate the initial physical evidence as tongues and the pattern they spell out is not difficult unless your are trying to disagree with them from the outset of your examination of them.


I'm not a cessationist so there is no inherent bias in my exegesis. I have spoken in tongues and believe in their continuing manifestation in the church age. But to turn your own argument around, your dogmatic belief in the initial evidence doctrine prevents you from believing Paul's own rhetorical question(s). The obvious answer to Paul's question is "no"- not all do speak with tongues. But your adherence to tongues as exclusive initial evidence requires you to answer "no, but, yes, at least once initially, then maybe or maybe not subsequently". Sometimes the most obvious answer, is the correct answer.
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5/13/19 10:43 am


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Post Well, this is not just my opinion brotherjames
The AG, as does the COG I'm sure, has some of the finest scholars in Pentecostal Christendom. Here is one of them, Dr. Anthony Palma, who elucidates quite succinctly in this paper the doctrine of initial physical evidence as glossalalia.
https://ag.org/-/media/AGORG/Beliefs/Resources/FilledWithTheSpiritPart3.pdf?la=en

Your exegesis and reasoning does not stand up to empirical reasoning and process.
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5/14/19 7:50 pm


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