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maqqebet

The Jerusalem Council Revisited (Acts 15:1-31)

Acts Enthusiast Posts: 1557 **2/7/10 9:37 am**

The Council’s decision was straightforward and resolved the issue at hand, yet has met with less success in its understanding and application in subsequent generations. Debate today, sometimes as contentious as the original issue, revolves around the implication and application in a contemporary setting.

One general understanding held by some is that the Gentiles were liberated from any expectations to abide by Torah. If this is the case, then the question that is asked: “Did the Council’s decree establish two standards; one for Jewish believers and one for Gentile believers?” At face value it is easy to see how such a conclusion might be made.

Yet, it must be established that such a conclusion by contemporary students is often the reflection of a centuries-old anti-Torah bias, if not prejudice. An honest examination of the incident viewed in its historical and cultural context can provide helpful insight and reveal important nuances to the narrative that provides a decidedly different conclusion than traditionally assigned implications regarding the Council’s decree. Following is a summary of the Council’s Judgment.

One, it rejected the imposition of the Pharisee requirement for Gentile conversion, which requires conversion to Pharisee Judaism in order for Gentiles to be accepted into the Community of believers.

Two, it called upon the Gentile believers, who were determined to be saved in the same manner as the Jews, to forsake their pagan lifestyle, and it was anticipated that they would continue in their walk as disciples of Yeshua, emulating Him in word and deed.

Three, the decision was received with great joy by the Gentiles.
The Council’s judgment does not call for two standards, one for Jews and one for Gentiles. To suggest so forces upon the decree that which is neither explicitly determined nor implied.

The Council’s judgment may serve as a benchmark for reference, but the continuing arguments for the Gentile’s responsibility towards Torah is worked in the Apostle Paul’s writings. Though he had arrived at the same conclusion of Kefa (Galatians), he remained silent regarding the issue during the Council’s deliberation.

For anyone interested the full text of the Jerusalem Council Revisited may be downloaded on my web site.
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The Hammer
www.hamaqqebet.blogspot.com/
One New Man ~ Reconciling Jew & Gentile through the Messiah!

Russell Roberts

Acts Enthusiast Posts: 2861 **2/8/10 8:51 pm**

Ok Maqqebet,

I read your study. I cut this statement from one of the last couple of paragraphs.

Eduardo Nieves

Acts Enthusiast Posts: 2136 **2/8/10 9:22 pm**

Thanks, Maqqebet. I've downloaded the article. I'm sure I'll have questions after I've read it.
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Romanos 8:37
37 Sin embargo, en todo esto somos más que vencedores por medio de aquel que nos amó.

"A Church Without Walls, A Place for All People"
El Nuevo Mana
Eduardo Nieves

maqqebet

Russell

Acts Enthusiast Posts: 1557 **2/8/10 11:14 pm**

in other words, a generalization meaning that there are those that insist that the Gentile has no responsibility towards the Torah. That is one general conclusion that some draw from the Council's decision.

Again, it is a generalization made to set up the question:

If this is the case, then the question that is asked: “Did the Council’s decree establish two standards; one for Jewish believers and one for Gentile believers?”

The conclusion of the matter is that the Council does not set up two standards. There is one standard for both Jewish and Gentile believer, The Torah as interpreted and taught by Yeshua and His Talmidim (or the Apostles).

It is not part of the position to go beyond the scope of the implications and ramifications of the Council's decree. That is another study. If we go beyond then we have to establish that Rav Sha'ul (Paul) and Kefa (Peter) agree that the Gentiles are saved by faith. This is evident in Galatians, a letter citing an incident prior to, and no doubt led to, the Jerusalem Council

I have not read Wright's explanation regarding Deuteronomy 30:13 & Romans 10:1-10, nor his explanation of righteousness. So, my remarks that follow may or may not agree with what he states.

It is obvious that faith is embedded in Torah and the passage Sha'ul cites in Romans 10:6-8 with vv. 4 in mind supports this position. But the passages cited are a prelude to verses 9 & 10 and allude to the expression "Sacrifice of Confession."

With each sacrifice confession was made (Leviticus 5:5) and for the sacrifice to be truly accepted it could not be offered as a rote ritual but the one making the sacrifice must believe that Adonai accepts the guilt offering. The confession includes an attitude of repentance. It was temporary and superficial (Hebrews 9:13; 10:4).

Therefore, we can conclude that any confession with the mouth that Jesus is Lord includes repentance with an eye towards faith. It is a heart felt conviction/belief/faith that Yeshua was raised from the dead, implying His sacrificial/atoning death preceded the exaltation of Messiah.

To answer your question regarding what do believe "do Torah" means: It means as a talmid (disciple) of Yeshua, I abide by the Torah as Yeshua taught/teaches and follow His example. To ask if such a position is legally binding asks the wrong question. Yeshua stated that if we love Him, we will obey His commandments (John 14:15), and this too, is another study.
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The Hammer
www.hamaqqebet.blogspot.com/
One New Man ~ Reconciling Jew & Gentile through the Messiah!